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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q19-Q24):
NEW QUESTION # 19
What automation tools should be used to help a release manager understand how the organization's services are related to one another?
- A. Enterprise architecture tools
- B. Work planning and prioritization tools
- C. Analysis and reporting tools
- D. Monitoring and event management tools
Answer: A
Explanation:
Understanding service relationships is critical for effective release management, especially to assess the impact of releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"Enterprise architecture tools help release managers understand the relationships between services, applications, and infrastructure, enabling better impact analysis and dependency mapping for releases"(Section 4.2).
* Option A (Analysis and reporting tools) focuses on performance metrics, not service relationships.
* Option B (Work planning and prioritization tools) aids in scheduling, not understanding service dependencies.
* Option C (Monitoring and event management tools) is used for real-time performancetracking, not structural relationships.
* Option D (Enterprise architecture tools) is the correct choice, as these tools map out service relationships and dependencies, helping the release manager plan releases effectively.
The correct answer is D, as enterprise architecture tools are designed for this purpose.
NEW QUESTION # 20
A service provider is reviewing its release management practice. It has been found that most releases meet their objectives and are delivered on time. However, teams and organizations using the service provider's services are complaining that sometimes software updates interrupt their work during peak business hours.
What should the service provider do to improve the release management practice by applying the 'collaborate and promote visibility' guiding principle?
- A. Review the effectiveness of release models
- B. Optimize the practice for the value streams
- C. Ensure an excellent user experience
- D. Do not overcomplicate the practice
Answer: C
Explanation:
The 'collaborate and promote visibility' guiding principle in ITIL 4 emphasizes working with stakeholders to ensure transparency and alignment with their needs. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document advises:"Applying the 'collaborate and promote visibility' principle involves working closely with stakeholders, such as service consumers, to understand their needs and ensure releases do not disrupt their operations, thereby ensuring an excellent user experience"(Section 5.1).
* The issue is that updates interrupt work during peak hours, indicating a lack of collaboration with users to understand their schedules and needs.
* Option A (Ensure an excellent user experience) directly addresses this by implying collaboration with users to schedule releases at non-disruptive times, aligning with the principle.
* Option B (Review the effectiveness of release models) is an internal activity and doesn't directly involve collaboration with stakeholders.
* Option C (Optimize the practice for the value streams) focuses on value stream efficiency but doesn't specifically address user collaboration.
* Option D (Do not overcomplicate the practice) is unrelated to the collaboration principle.
The correct answer is A, as ensuring an excellent user experience through collaboration directly applies the principle to address the issue.
NEW QUESTION # 21
A service provider is receiving poor feedback from customers about releases of updates to a software product.
A review has shown that releases are often delayed or have to be repeated due to a lack of information about their impact on business processes and on other IT systems. The service provider is reviewing the value streams involving the software releases. Which step of the value stream analysis should the service provider use to understand the required information and dependencies?
- A. Identifying the scope of the value stream analysis
- B. Identifying the workflow steps
- C. Creating a 'to be' value stream map
- D. Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map
Answer: D
Explanation:
Value stream analysis in ITIL 4 helps identify inefficiencies and dependencies in processes like release management. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument notes:"Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map allows organizations to understand the current state, including dependencies and impacts on business processes and IT systems, which can reveal gaps in information that lead to delays or failures" (Section 4.3).
* Option A (Creating a 'to be' value stream map) focuses on designing the future state, which comes after understanding the current state.
* Option B (Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map) is the correct step to understand current impacts and dependencies, identifying the root cause of delays and repeats.
* Option C (Identifying the scope of the value stream analysis) is an initial step but doesn't directly address understanding impacts.
* Option D (Identifying the workflow steps) is part of mapping but doesn't emphasize reflection on impacts and dependencies.
The correct answer is B, as reflecting on the current value stream map helps uncover the missing information about impacts.
NEW QUESTION # 22
A release manager is considering the involvement of third parties in the release management practice. Which release management activity is likely to have a dependency on third parties?
- A. Release management alignment with other practices
- B. Verifying a release according to the release plan
- C. Performing a release according to an agreed model
- D. Identifying an applicable model for a release instance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Third parties, such as suppliers or vendors, often play a role in the execution of releases, especially when they provide components or services involved in the release. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document states:"Performing a release according to an agreed model often involves dependencies on third parties, such as suppliers providing software updates, infrastructure, or support services, which need to be integrated during the release execution"(Section 3.4).
* Option A (Release management alignment with other practices) is an internal coordination activity, less likely to directly involve third parties.
* Option B (Identifying an applicable model) is a planning activity typically handled internally by the release manager.
* Option C (Performing a release according to an agreed model) directly involves executing the release, which often requires third-party components or services, creating a dependency.
* Option D (Verifying a release) may involve third-party tools but is less dependent on their active participation compared to execution.
The correct answer is C, as performing the release is the activity most likely to depend on third parties.
NEW QUESTION # 23
A new release manager wants to explain to the organization's service consumers the purpose of a new release management practice. What should the release manager say to the service consumers to help them realize the value of release management?
- A. The release management practice will ensure that new service features are available to the service operations team to enable them to perform tests.
- B. The release management practice will ensure the quick use of improved services after new service features have been made available.
- C. The release management practice will ensure that new service features are available to users to mitigate the service provider's risks.
- D. The release management practice will ensure that new service features are available to the service operations team to reduce business losses.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The purpose of the release management practice in ITIL 4 is to make new and changed services and features available for use by ensuring a controlled and efficient release process. According to theITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument, the purpose is defined as:"The purpose of the release management practice is to make new and changed services and features available for use"(Section 2.1). This focuses on delivering value to service consumers by enabling them to use improved or new services quickly and effectively.
* Option A focuses on the service operations team performing tests, which is part of the release process but not the primary value perceived by service consumers.
* Option B mentions reducing business losses for the operations team, which is an internal benefit, not a direct value for consumers.
* Option C aligns directly with the purpose: "the quick use of improved services after new service features have been made available" reflects the consumer-facing value of release management- ensuring they can benefit from new or improved services promptly.
* Option D focuses on mitigating the service provider's risks, which is a provider-centric benefit, not a consumer-focused value statement.
Thus, the correct answer is C, as it directly addresses the value to service consumers by emphasizing the availability and usability of improved services, aligning with the ITIL 4 definition of release management's purpose.
NEW QUESTION # 24
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